ENTRANCE EXAMINATION-2017 MASTER OF PHYSIOTHERAPY
(Sports/Orthopaedics/Neurology/Cardiopulmonary)
SET C
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Timer 1 hour 45 Minutes
1. Do not write your name or put any other mark of
identification anywhere in the OMR Answer Sheet IF ANY MARK OF IDENTIFICATIONS
IS DISCOVERED ANYWHERE IN OMR ANSWER SHEET, the OMR sheet will be cancelled,
and will not be evaluated.
3. Each correct answer curries one mark.
4. There is
negative murking for Multiple Choice Questions. For each wrong answer, 0.25
marks will be deducted
6. USE/POSSESSION OF ELECTRONIC GADGETS LIKE MOBILE PHONE, iPhone, iPad, pager ETC. is Dot permitted
10, Write your Roll Number in the appropriate space (above) and on the OMR Answer Sheet, Any be written only in the space provided. Sheet will not be evaluated. other details, if asked for should
A. Sting, cold, burn/ache, numb
B. Cold, burn/ache, numb, sting
C. Numb, cold, burn/ache, sting
D. Cold, sting, burn/ache, numb
2.What should be the minimum value to be for pressure while
using intermittent compression devices
A. ≤30 mmHg
B. ≤100 mmHg
C. ≤120 mmHg
D. ≤80 mmHg
3.In distributed practice
A. Rest between trials is greater than the amount of time
for trial
B. Rest between trials is less than or equal to the amount
of time for trail
C. Rest between trials is greater than or equal to the
amount of time for trial
D. Rest between trials is less than the amount of time for
trail
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4.The resting membrane potential of large nerve fibers when
they are not transmitting signals.
A. -120 millivolts
B. -100 millivolts
C. -90 millivolts
D. -60 millivolts
5.The features of second heart sound:
A. Due to closure of aortic and pulmonary valves. low pitch,
short in duration
B. Due to closure of aortic and pulmonary valves, low pitch,
relatively long
C. Due to closure of aortic and pulmonary valves,
rapid snap, relatively long
D. Due to closure of aortic and pulmonary valves, rapid
snap, short in duration
6.The patient has an arterial ulcer located on the distal
end of her great toe .the safest electrotherapy modality which can be used in
this patient.
A. Therapeutic ultrasound
B. Short wave diathermy
C. Hydrotherapy
D. Pneumatic compression therapy
7.The biofeedback in muscle reeducation is used to
elicit
A. Twitch reaction
B. Relaxation
C. Reduce muscle injury
D. Muscle contraction
8.The lasers influence the inflammatory through:
A. Increasing lymphocyte activity
B.Decreasing prostaglandin
C. Decreasing metabolism
D. Realigning collagen
9.The normal chronaxie threshes hold current values in
innervated and denervated muscles.
A. innervated < 0,5m s, denervated > 10 ms
B. innervated <0.Im s , denervated >5 ms
C. innervated<0.1m s,denervated <5 ms
D innervated <ims, denervated > 10 ms
10.DIF-pattern in PNF of upper limb.
A. Shoulder: Flexion-adduction-internal rotation, Elbow: may
fiex or remain extended, Forearm: Supination and Wrist: flexion with ulnar
deviation, Fingers: Flexion and adduction.
B. Shoulder: Flexion-abduction-internal rotation, Elbow: may
flex or remain extended, Forearm: pronation and Wrist: flexion with radial deviation,
Fingers: Flexion and the adduction.
C.Shoulder: Flexion-adduction-external rotation, Elbow: may
flex or remain extended, Forearm: Supination and Wrist: flexion with radial
deviation, Fingers: Flexion and the adduction.
D. Shoulder: Flexion-adduction-internal rotation, Elbow: may
flex or remain extended, Forearm. Pronation and Wrist flexion with ulnar
deviation, Fingers: Flexion and the adduction,
11.Doing exercise in water will have following effect on
respiratory system except
A. Increased work of breathing
B. Decreased vital capacity
C. Decreased exercise induced asthma
D. Increased vital capacity
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12.A patient lifts a fixed load and the muscle which
contracts concentrically develop .
A constant tension throughout the range of
motion
B. Maximum tension at only one point in the range of
motion
C. Maximum tension at beginning and end of the range of
motion
D. Maximum tension at 3 points such as beginning, midway and
at the end of range of motion
13.Hold relax technique will result in relaxation of muscle.
The reason for relaxation
A. Autogenic inhibition
B. Irradiation
C. After discharge
D. Temporal summation
14.In case of peripheral joint mobilization, treatment plane
lies on:
A. Convex surface irrespective of arthrokinematics
B. Concave surface when convex surface is moving
C. Convex surface when concave surface is moving
D. Concave surface irrespective of arthrokinematics
15.The resting position of humeroulnar articulation for
peripheral joint mobilization using sustained translator technique
A. Elbow flexed 90 degrees and forearm supinated 10 degrees
B. Elbow flexed 30 degrees and forearm supinated 10
degrees
C. Elbow flexed 80 degrees and forearm supinated 10
degrees
D Elbow flexed 70 degrees and forearm supinated 10 degrees
16.In spinal traction, to achieve unilateral effects aiming
maximum distraction of ficets on one side of the neck.
A.The neck ls side bend opposite and rotated toward
the side to be affected.
B. The neck is side bend and rotated toward the side to be
affected
C. The neck is extended and rotated toward the side to be
affected.
D. The neck is extended, side bent opposite and rotated
toward the side to be affected.
17.The normal value of Q-T interval in electrocardiogram:
A. 0.50 seconds
B. 0.16 seconds
C 0.20 seconds
D. 0.35 seconds
18.Renin is a small protein enzyme related to blood pressure
regulation.
A. For about 30 minutes to 1 hour
B. For few minutes only
C. For about 24 hours
D. For about 1 to 2 hours
19.The normal clotting time:
A. 10-15 minutes
B less than 1 minutes
C. 6 to 10 minutes
D. more than 10 minutes
20.The approximate value of expiratory reserve volume:
A. About 1100 milliliters
B. About 1500 milliliters
C. About 1400 milliliters
D. About 1000 milliliters
21.The main limiting factor in the rate of chemical reaction
A. Oxygen availability
B. Concentration of ADP
C. Accumulation of CO2
D. Concentration of ATP
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22.The contraction of muscle spindle fibers along with
skeletal muscles will help
A. To decrease receptor portion of the muscle spindle and it
maintains proper dampening function.
B. To keep receptor portion of the muscle spindle from
chanting and it maintains proper dampening function
C.To increase receptor portion of the muscle spindle and it
maintains proper dampening function
D. To keep receptor portion of the muscle spindle from
changing and function
23.The flocculonodular lobes of the
A Blood pressure regulation
B. Coordination
C. Production of stereotyped
D. Equilibrium functions
24.Micrographia seen in Parkinson disease is
a problem
Resulting from motor planning deficits
B. Resulting from motor learning deficits
C. Resulting from abnormal muscle tone
D. Resulting from cardiopulmonary dysfunction
25.The VI stage in Rancho Los Amigos level of cognitive
functional scale.
A. Automatic Appropriate
B. Confused-Appropriate
C. Purposeful -Appropriate
D. Confused inappropriate
26.In a neurological examination while assessing the plantar
reflex. The normal response which will be observed.
A. Dorsiflexion of great toe with fanning of plantarflexion
B. Dorsiflexion
of great toe with of other toes
C. Plantar flexion of other toes with plantar flexion of
great toe
D. Inversion of foot with plantar flexion at ankle joint
27.The number of task and maximum score in Berg balance
scale
A. 12 and 48
B. 14 and 56
C. 13 and 52
D. 10 and 40
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28.The grades of mobilization in oscillatory techniques in
which the oscillations are more like manual vibrations.
A. Grade I & Grade III
B. Grade I & Grade II
C. Grade III & Grade IV
D. Grade II & Grade III
29.The primary training methods to improve balance in subjects
with asymmetrical weight bearing while standing
A. Sensory integration training & Motor strategy
training
B. Motor strategy training & Limits of stability
training
C. Centre-of-mass control training & Limits of stability
training
D. Limits of stability training & Sensory integration
training
30Among the following which exercise is not safe
during pregnancy
A. Bilateral straight leg raise
B. All four hip extension
C. Unilateral weight-bearing activities
D. All the above
31.In acute stroke patients the positioning strategy of
lower limb in supine lying
A. Pelvis: Protracted; Hip : Forward: Knee: Extended; Under
the Sole: Nothing should be place
B. Pelvis: Retracted ; Hip : Forward: Knee: on a small towel
rol: Under the Sole: Nothing should be placed
C. Pelvis: Protracted; Hip : Forward: Knee: on a small towel
roll: Under the Sole: Nothing should be placed
D. Pelvis: Protracted; Hip : Backward: Knee: on a small
towel roll. Under the Sole: Nothing should be placed
32.An appropriate cardiovascular training parameters for
multiple sclerosis patient:
A. Frequency: All 7 days a week; Intensity: 80 to 90% of
peak heart rate; Mode: cycling walking
B. Frequency: Alternate days of week; Intensity: 100% of
peak heart rate: Mode: cycling walking
C. Frequency: Altemate days of week; Intensity: 60 to 75% of
peak heart rate: Mode: cycling walking
D. Frequency: All 7 days a week; Intensity: 30 to 40% of
peak heart rate: Mode: cycling walking
33.Identify the preventive strategies among the following
interventions in a middle stage amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) patient,
(1).Range of motion exercise (2) Strengthening exercises (3)Wheel chair
prescription (4) Education of caregivers for functional training (5) Mechanical
lift
A. Interventions 1, 2 and 3
B. Interventions 2 and 3
C. Intervention 1 and 2
D. All the intervention
34.A patient is put on plaster cast for the fracture of
tibia. To reduce muscle.
A. Intermittent isotonic contractions can be advised
B. Intermittent eccentric contraction can be advised
C. Intermittent resisted isometric contractions can be
advised
D. Intermittent muscle setting can be advised
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35.As home treatment programme for patient with limited
shoulder extension you want to teach hi self-mobilization. The way to do the
self mobilization
A. The patient sits and places both arm mobilization. behind him, fixing both hands
on the solid surface. He then leans the body weight between the arms.
B. He is asked to sit on a firm surface and grasp the
fingers under the edge. He then leans the trunk
towards the stabilized arm
C. He is asked to sit on a firm surface and grasp the
fingers under the edge. He then leans the trunk away from the stabilized arm.
D. The patient sits and places both arm in front of him,
fixing both hands on the solid surface. He then leans the body weight between
the arms.
36.A patient is treated post surgically for rotator cuff
tear. The rhythmic stabilization exercises for scapular muscles during
maximum-protection phase can be initiated.
A. After 1 week after surgery against a pain-free level of
resistance
B. Immediately after surgery against a pain-free level of
resistance
C. After 2 days after surgery against a pain-free level of
resistance
D. After 2 week after surgery against a pain-free level of
resistance
37.The features of lymphedema in stage I
A. Lymphedema is reversible, with minimal edema
B. Lymphedema is spontaneously irreversible with minimal
edema
C. Lymphedema is reversible with no pitting on pressure
D. Lymphedema is reversible with accumulation of
protein-rich fluid
38.The process of breakdown of Escher by body's own enzymes
is called
A.Autolytic debridement
B. Auto healing
C. Self regeneration
D. Healing by debridement
39.The patients with chronic arterial insufficiency should
be advised
A. Graded endurance exercise for 2 to 3 days a week
B. Graded endurance exercise for one day a week
C. Graded endurance exercise for 3to 5 days a week
D. Graded endurance exercise for all 7 days a week
40.The acute effect of exercise in type 2 diabetes is
produced by:
A. BG transport via a separate additive mechanism
B. Increase in insulin production
C. By reducing storage of sugar
D. Insulin-stimulated BG uptake into skeletal muscle
41.Which among the following is a brainstem
A. Head righting on body
B. Flexor Withdrawal
C. Protective extension
D. Symmetric tonic neck reflex
42.In a neurological ward a spinal cord injury patient is
assigned to have T1 neurological level. What will be the minimum strength of
the muscle innervated by T1 nerve root, in a 6 point ordinal scale, manual
muscle strength testing procedure (MMT).
A 2 out of 5
B. 3 out of 5
C. 4 out of 5
D. 1 out of 5
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43.Prone on hands-position in paraplegic subjects will help
functionally
A. Lower limb dressing
B. During ambulation
C. Bed mobility
D. During transfers
44.The neurological structure involved in dysmetria,
dyssynergia and dysdiadochokinesia.
A. Basal ganglia
B. Internal capsule
C. Cerebellum
D. Subthalamic nucleus
45.The treatment options available to reduce pain and muscle
guarding during active disease period of rheumatoid arthritis.
A. Gentle massage and Use of supportive device
B. Use of supportive device and Avoidance of activities
that
C. Avoidance of activities that stress the joints and
relaxation
D. Gentle massage and relaxation technique
46.The muscle abnormalities in posterior shin splints.
A. Tight anterior tibial muscles and weak gastroc soleus
complex
B. Tight gastroc soleus complex and weak posterior tibialis
muscle
C. Both gastrocsoleus complex and anterior tibial muscles
will be weak
D. Both gastrocsoleus complex and anterior tibial muscles
will be tight
47. The closed-chain exercise during early phases of
rehabilitation of knee after surgery will lead to development of:
A. More shear forces on knee ligaments than open chain
exercises
B. Same amount of shear forces as compared to the open chain
exercises
C. Less shear forces on knee ligaments than open chain
exercises
D. Strength without affecting the knee ligaments
48.While a patient doing the short-arc terminal extension
exercises in early phase of rehabilitation after knee surgery. The amount of
lateral shear force at the knee can be prevented:
A. By ankle plantar flexion
B. By ankle dorsiflexion
C. By ankle eversion
D. By ankle inversion
49.Pressure garments helps in reducing scar formation in
burn injuries by the following mechanism
A. Reduced vascularity, decreased mucopolysaccharides,
decrease collagen and reduced localized edema
B. Reduced vascularity, increased mucopolysaccharides, decrease
collagen and reduced localized edema
C. Increased vascularity, decreased mucopolysaccharides,
decrease collagen and reduced localized edema
D. Increased vascularity, increased mucopolysaccharides,
decrease collagen and reduced localized edema
50.Components of obligatory flexion synergy in lower limb
seen after stroke.
A. Hip flexion, abduction, external rotation, knee flexion,
ankle dorsiflexion, eversion, toe dorsiflexion
B. Hip flexion, abduction, external rotation, knee
flexion, ankle dorsiflexion, inversion, toe dorsiflexion
C. Hip flexion, abduction, external rotation, knee flexion,
ankle dorsiflexion, inversion,
toe plantarflexion
D. Hip flexion, adduction, external rotation, knee flexion,
ankle dorsiflexion,inversion,
toe dorsiflexion
51.A patient is having lateral shift toward right side
associated with inter vertebral disk protrusion.
The method to
correct lateral shift
A. A medial glide technique is used to correct the shift
B. A lateral gliding technique is used to correct the shift
C. A spinal extension will correct the shift
D. A Spinal flexion will correct the shift.
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52.The self correction method of lateral shift in patients
with anterior protrusion of inter vertebral disk.
A. Standing and placing the leg on the side of shift with
hip at 90 of flexion. The knee on the opposite of the lateral shift remains
extended. The patient flexes the trunk onto the raised thigh and applies
pressure by pulling on the ankle
B. Standing and placing the leg on the side of shift with
hip at 90 opposite side of the lateral shift remains extended. The patient
extends the trunk.
C. Standing and placing the leg on the side of shift with
hip at 90% of flexion. The knee on the opposite of the lateral shift remains
extended. The patient flexes the trunk onto the raised thigh.
D. Standing and placing the leg opposite of the shift
with hip at 90 of
flexion. The leg on the lateral shift remains extended. The patient
flexes the trunk onto the raised thigh and applies pressure by pulling on the
ankle.
53.Bicycling is often used in the rehabilitation of knee
disorders in athletes. Which among the following will affect the patellofemoral
joint reaction force?
A. Pedalling speed
B. Type of pedal
C. Pedal resistance
D. Pedalling angle
54.Pathomechanics of rotator cuff tendinopathy in
swimmers:
A. Insufficient body roll, low elbow on recovery,
insufficient external rotation of the shoulder.
B. Insufficient body roll, high elbow on recovery,
insufficient external rotation of the shoulder
C. Insufficient body roll, high elbow on recovery,
insufficient internal rotation of the shoulder
D. Insufficient body roll, low elbow on recovery,
insufficient internal rotation of the shoulder
55.According to the concept of periodization, the athlete
tuiining ina in-season should focus:
A. Cross training
B. Moderate intensity exercises
C. Recreational exercises
D. Skill training
56.A footballer was tackled by opponent player. He fell down
turning her ankle
inward, sustaining grade 2 ankle sprain. What specifically
should be done to most effectively control
the initial swelling associated with this injury?
A. A compression warp, ice and elevation should be
maintained initially for at least 30 minutes not longer than 1 hour.
B. A compression warp. ice and elevation should be
maintained initially not longer than 1 hour
C. A compression warp, ice and elevation should be
maintained initially for at least 10 minutes not longer than 1 hour.
D. A compression warp, ice and elevation should be
maintained initially for at least 5 minutes not longer than 30 minutes.
57.football player sustaining repeated contusions to the
right quadriceps muscle is prone to develop
A Muscle weakness
B. Muscle rupture
C. Myositis ossificans inflammation
D. Muscle
58.Herniation of the intervertebral disc between the fifth
and sixth cervical vertebrae will compress.
A fourth cervical nerve root
B. sixth cervical nerve root
C. fifth cervical nerve root
D. seventh cervical nerve root
59.The following tendons are inserted into the base of the
proximal phalanx of the thumb except:
A. Abductor pollicis longus
B. Extensor pollicis brevis
C. Oblique head of adductor pollicis
D. Flexor pollicis brevis
60.The possible muscles involved in a slouched posture
abnormality at hip joint.
A. Tight rectus femoris and hamstrings, weak and tight
iliopsoas, weak and poorly developed gluteus maximus
B. Tight rectus femoris and hamstrings: weak, stretched
iliopsoas: weak and poorly developed gluteus medius
C. Tight rectus femoris and hamstrings, weak, stretched
iliopsoas, weak and poorly
developed gluteus maximus
D. Tight rectus femoris and hamstrings: weak, stretched
iliopsoas; tight and poorly developed gluteus maximus
61.A positive Thomas test indicate
A .Hamstring tightness
B.Quadriceps tightness
C Rectus femoris tightness
D. Hip adductor tightness
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62.An athlete complains of pain during running and the pain
persists after running also. She presents with no functional disability. The grade
of overuse syndrome for the athlete.
A Second degree
B First degree
C. Third degree
D. Fourth degree
63.Carbohydrate loading is used almost exclusively used by
athletes:
A. Sprinters
B. Shot-put throwers
C. Weight lifters
D. Marathon runners
64.Which among the following is a relative contraindication
for exercise testing:
A. Active or suspected myocarditis or pericarditis
B. Thrombophlebitis or intracardiac thrombi
C. Ventricular aneurysms
D. Recent systemic or pulmonary embolism
65.An athlete is in Il phase of rehabilitation after a
injury. The type of exercise the athlete should not be doing in this phase.
A. Therapeutic Muscle Stretching
B. Dynamic Flexibility Exercise
C. Aerobic Activity
D. Proprioceptive Drills
66.A footballer suddenly collapses in the field and dies.
What cannot be the possible reason for the death?
A. Uncontrolled hypertension
B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
C. Mitral valve prolapse
D. Coronary artery spasm
67.Which among the following bones is not the part of
proximal row of carpal bones?
A. lunate
B. Pisiform
C. Trapezium
D. Scaphoid
68.The sensory innervations of the nail bed of the index
finger.
A. Median nerve
B. Radial nerve
C. Dorsal cutaneous branch of the ulnar nerve
D. Superficial branch of the ulnar
69.The medial collateral ligament of the elbow is closely
related to:
A. Brachial artery
B. Radial nerve
C. Ulnar nerve
D. Ulnar artery
70.The chief arterial supply of the head of the femur in
adults.
A. superior circumflex artery
B. Obturator artery
C. branches from the medial and lateral circumflex
femoral
D. inferior gluteal artery
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71.The lateral rectus muscle of the eye is innervated
A. Abducens nerve
B. Trigeminal nerve
C. Oculomotor nerve
D. Trochlear nerve
72.The facial nerve canal is located in:
A. Occipital bone
B. Temporal bone
C. Mastoid process
D. Greater wing of the sphenoid bone
73.The styloglossus muscle
A. Protrudes the tounge
B. Depresses the tounge
C. Retracts the tongue upwards and backwards
D. Elevates the tongue
74.The type of cells found in tendons
A. Chondroblast
B. Fibroblast
C. Osteoblast
D. Osteoclast
75.Which among the following ligaments have 75%of elastin component
A. Ligamentum flavum
B. Anterior cruciate ligament of knee
C. Medial collateral ligament of knee
D. Anterior longitudinal ligament of spine
76.The protein which is responsible for force transmission
in muscle
A. Actin
B. Myosin
C. Titin
D.Desmin
77.The sequence of activity of quadriceps muscle in
different phases of gait cycle.
A. Acts concentrically during the first 10% of the stance
phase to control knee flexion when the knee is flexing rapidly. Activity ceases
after the first part of stance, and no activity occurs until the last 20% of
the swing phase, when concentric activity begins to extend the knee in
preparation for heel strike.
B. Acts concentrically during the first 10% of the
stance phase to control
knee flexion when the knee is flexing rapidly. Activity ceases
after the first part of stance, and no activity occurs until the last 20% of
the swing phase, when eccentric activity begins to extend the knee in
preparation for heel strike,
C Acts concentrically during the first 10% of the stance
phase to control knee flexion when the knee is flexing rapidly. Activity ceases
after the first part of stance, and no activity occurs until the last 20% of
the swing phase, when concentric activity begins to extend the knee in
preparation for heel strike.
D. Acts eccentrically during the first 10% of the stance
phase to control knee flexion when knee is flexing rapidly and continues its
activity throughout stance phase to assist knee extension. Then concentric
activity begins to extend the knee in preparation for heel strike in swing
phase.
78.During observation of a gait in a man of 45 years, it's
observed that He is bending his trunk posteriorly at heel strike to prevent the
trunk from falling posteriorly. The affected muscle in the subject.
A. Gluteus maximus
B. Gluteus medius
C. iliopsoas
D. Trunk flexors
79.In the optimal erect posture.
A. The ankle joint is in 5° plantarflexion. The line of
gravity passes slightly anterior to the lateral malleolus
B. The ankle joint is in the neutral position, or midway
between dorsiflexion and plantarflexion. The line of gravity passes slightly
posterior to the lateral malleolus
C. The ankle joint is in the neutral position, or midway
between dorsiflexion and plantarflexion The line of gravity passes bisects
lateral malleolus
D. The ankle joint is in the neutral position, or midway
between dorsiflexion and plantarflexion The line of gravity passes slightly
anterior to the lateral malleolus
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80.The component movements of non weight bearing supination
at subtalar joint
A. Calcaneal inversion Calcaneal adduction+Calcaneal
plantarflexion
B. Calcaneal eversion +Calcaneal adduction+Calcaneal plantar
flexion
C.Calcaneal inversion +Calcaneal abduction+Calcaneal plantar
flexion
D. Calcaneal inversion+Calcaneal adduction+Calcaneal
dorsiflexion
81.The posterior tilting and gliding of the superior
vertebra with narrowing of the intervertebral foramen, and the spinous processes
move closer together. This will
Result
A. Vertebral rotation
B. Vertebral flexion
C Vertebral rotation and flexion
D. Vertebral extension
82.During the backswing or cock-up" portion of throwing
a ball.
A. The medial collateral ligament at elbow joint is
relaxed
B. The medial collateral ligament at elbow joint is
subjected to compressive forces
C. The medial collateral ligament at elbow joint is
subjected to shortened
D. The medial collateral ligament at elbow joint is
subjected to tensile stress
83.In stretching procedure the clinician applies a constant
force to the shortened muscle and the structure elongates gradually. The
mechanical principle behind this procedure.
A. Creep
B.
Stress-strain sensitivity
C. Stress-relaxation
D. Hysteresis
84.The clawing of hands is primarily due to the weakness of
the muscle.
A. Palmar interossei
B. Lumbricals
C. Dorsal interossei
D. Thenar muscles
85.The type of breathing used in autogenic drainage
A. Pursed lip breathing
B. Diaphragmatic breathing
C. Glossopharyngeal breathing
D. Airshaft maneuver
86.While assisting a cough, the therapist places the heel of
his hand at about the level of the patient's navel. After the patient has taken
a deep breath with holding it, followed by coughing, the therapist quickly
pushes up and in. The technique of assistance:
A. Costophrenic assist
B. Anterior chest compression assist
C. Heimlich-type assist
D. Counter-rotation assist
87.On observation of breathing pattern a patient is observed
to have sequences of uniformly deep gasps and apnea followed by deep gasps.
This type of breathing pattern:
A. Biot respiration
B. Apneustic breathing
C. Dyspnea
D. Ploypnes
88.The butterfly technique is used to reduce.
A High blood pressure
B. High respiratory rate
C High Body temperature
D. High pulse rate
89.One of the complication of positive end-expiratory pressure:
A. Increases breathing rate
B. Increased respiratory rate
C. Inversed respiratory load
D. Increase dead space ventilation
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90.The weaning from a mechanical ventilator to be a
success.
A. Negative inspiratory force <-40 cm 0
B. Negative inspiratory force <-50 cmH-0
C.
Negative inspiratory force <-30 cmH;0
D. Negative inspiratory force <-45 cmH,0
91.The normal value of central venous pressure measure at
midaxillary line
A. 0 to 5 cm H²o
B. 0 to 10 cm H²o
C. 10 to 15 H²o
D. 15 to 20 cm H²o
92.The duration of exercise to elicit long-term aerobic
benefits in healthy
A. 10 to 20 min
B. 20 to 30 min
C. 15 to 20 min
D. 20 to 40 min
93.The rate of perceived exertion used in cardiac
rehabilitation.
A. It's a objective measure
B. It's a subjective measure
C. It measures endurance
D. It measures oxygen consumption
94.Shallow breathing pattern is usually observed:
A. Parkinson Disease
B.Asthma
C. Tuberculosis
D. Ankylosing spondylitis
95.A subject is engaged in a physical activity at 70% of
HRmx. The level of relative intensity of physical
activity.
A Light
B. Hard
C. Very hard
D. Moderate
96.The features of Faradic current
A. Frequency: 50 to 75 Hz; Phases: monophasic or biphasic,
duration 1 ms
B. Frequency: 75 to 100 Hz, Phases: monophasic or biphasic;
duration 1 ms
C. Frequency: 50 to 75 Hz, Phases: monophasic or biphasic;
duration 1 ms
D. Frequency: 100 to 150 Hz; Phases: monophasic or biphasic,
duration >1 ms
97.The discomfort associated with electrical stimulation.
A.Stimulation of A- alphq nerve fibers
B. Stimulation of A-bita nerve fibers
C. Stimulation of A-gama nerve fibers
D. Stimulation of
A B nerve fibers
98.What is the value of Fresnel zone in 1 MHZ ultrasound
waves in water with following parameters A= 1.5mm and size of head of radius. F
15mm
A. 15 cm
B. 10 cm
C. 25cm
D. 5 cm
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99.The choice of selection of frequency to stimulate slow
twitch fibers
A. >30 Hz
B. <30 Hz
c. <50 Hz
D.<10Hz
100.The half-value depth of ultrasound varies according
to type of
tissue . So what is the correct the ascending sequence
of half-value depth for various tissues?
A. Fatty tissue Bone> Muscle
B. Bone>Fatty tissue> Muscle
C. Fatty Tissue> Muscle Bone
D. Muscle>Bone>Fatty tissue
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National Physical Therapy Exam Test series 1 Practice mode MPT preparation Quiz
National Physical Therapy Exam Test series 2 Practice mode MPT preparation Quiz
National Physical Therapy Exam Test series 3 Practice mode MPT preparation Quiz
National Physical Therapy Exam.
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